One of the things I am writing about right now is my experience with sexual assault/rape --what happened to me I've never described as rape because I don't believe it was. Sexual assault is just too harsh but may well be the best alternative --sexual abuse to me would imply a repeated pattern of sexual aggression and that was not the case with me.

The word "rape" has become a metaphor for sexual violence that does not necessarily describe one act. And that's a problem. Because Ms. Mangum's definition of rape was not good enough for prosecutors.

The question is who is at fault here? Is this an issue of miscommunication where she is using the word as a metaphor yet the prosecutors were using it as a specific act?